Share Name Share Symbol Market Type Share ISIN Share Description
Capital Gearing Trust Plc LSE:CGT London Ordinary Share GB0001738615 ORD 25P
  Price Change % Change Share Price Bid Price Offer Price High Price Low Price Open Price Shares Traded Last Trade
  +20.00p +0.47% 4,240.00p 4,240.00p 4,260.00p 4,240.00p 4,230.00p 4,240.00p 20,425 15:07:04
Industry Sector Turnover (m) Profit (m) EPS - Basic PE Ratio Market Cap (m)
Equity Investment Instruments 4.7 3.7 51.1 82.9 352.88

Capital Gearing Share Discussion Threads

Showing 8101 to 8121 of 8250 messages
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azalea, How much is the Capital Gains allowance? Varies between tax years. For the current 2017/18 tax year, £11,300 - that's the figure that affects CGT planning of sales you do now. For the 2016/17 tax year, £11,100 - that's the figure that affects the tax return for that tax year, which you might be filling in now. For a couple more tax years, see . Further back will probably require a bit of searching! Gengulphus
tmckenzie1, Tax treatment of CFD's (Contracts for difference) Is this CGT or Income tax ? ... As an interest, I have a CFD account. Most days I take out a few positions on the direction of UK shares. Lets say I buy 3 - 5 positions in a typical day. I can hold these positions from anywhere between a few hours upwards to a few weeks or more. I basically buy a position and await the movement in the direction I hope will make me a profit. ... For tax purposes, would HMRC class this as trading (and therefore Income tax) or speculation / gambling therefore CGT. Almost certainly as speculation / investment and therefore CGT. (Gambling would be neither Income Tax nor CGT, which is why spreadbets aren't subject to either. And sorry, I don't know exactly whether the boundary between speculation and gambling lies!) I say "almost certainly" rather than "certainly" because it is possible for an individual to make investing their "trade" and subject to Income Tax (which automatically makes it not subject to CGT). That's not something that looks good on the tax rates (20%/40%/45% for Income Tax vs 10%/20% for CGT), but it does make a lot more costs offsettable against the profits and so could be beneficial. However, whether investing counts as someone's "trade" is determined on the facts about how they do it - i.e. they cannot choose the tax treatment freely or directly, but only indirectly by doing it in a way that qualifies it as their "trade". And it's pretty hard to make it qualify - it can be done by buying and selling sufficiently often and in a sufficiently "professional" manner, but I'm fairly certain from what I've read about the question that what you're doing is not enough. That stuff I've read is mostly from HMRC's Business Income Manual, the relevant section of which is Pages BIM56830 - BIM56860 and BIM56880 are especially relevant. Gengulphus
How much is the Capital Gains allowance?
Tax treatment of CFD's (Contracts for difference) Is this CGT or Income tax ? I basically have a portfolio of property investments which I let. This provides an income for my family to live from. As an interest, I have a CFD account. Most days I take out a few positions on the direction of UK shares. Lets say I buy 3 - 5 positions in a typical day. I can hold these positions from anywhere between a few hours upwards to a few weeks or more. I basically buy a position and await the movement in the direction I hope will make me a profit. (Example...I will buy a CFD long position in a UK company, lets say Lloyds at 63p and aim to sell for 64p. A 100,000 long position would gain me £1000 minus deductions. If the shareprice rises soon after I buy I will sell, if it takes a week or three to rise then I just hold until that happens and then sell.) For tax purposes, would HMRC class this as trading (and therefore Income tax) or speculation / gambling therefore CGT. Thank You.
Thanks again, Gengulphus As my dentist said to me about flossing - you have to learn to enjoy it. I shall have to learn to enjoy the arcana of tax rules, and it's much easier to achieve that with such clear and thorough help.
Hi Gengulphus I would appreciate your views on how the section 104 pooling works on an AIM share which qualifies for business property relief. I have made a number of transactions in one AIM share, some of which have been held for over 2 yeas. The remainder have been held for less than one year. To simplify the example, lets assume that I have 5 trades undertaken more than two years ago totalling 100 shares at a total cost of £10. Lets also assume that I have made another 10 trades in the same share in the last year totalling 100 shares at a cost of £30. Pooling these shares gives me 200 shares at a cost of £40. 100 of these shares is now outside of my estate and are valued at £20 in the pool. If I give these 100 shares to a family member, am I now giving away £20 rather than the actual cost of £10? Or do they get "de - pooled"? If I have to revert to treating the qualifing shares at their original cost, can I freely choose which shares to give away or is there an HMRC order in which the trades have to be treated? Is there any way to check whether any particular AIM share qualifies for BPR? Very many thanks. A
Thank you, Gengulphus. I'm now working through the figures. If I'd done my homework in advance the overall amount of work would have been less, but then I already knew that - it's one of the (few) things I learned at University. So for tax purposes, when calculating a gain or loss, the purchase price includes costs such as commission and stamp duty, but the sale proceeds are taken gross, without deducting costs?
Type a list in wordpad then copy and paste to the stonebanks calculator Company date (6 figs 290817), b or s, share price (pence), total (£xx.pp)
I've been acting on the assumption that the 30-day rule works in both directions - ie the rule applies if I sell shares and then buy them back within 30 days, and also if I buy shares and then sell them within 30 days. Am I right? Or does it only apply when shares are sold first and bought back later? If I'm wrong, fortunately there's only one transaction where I have it the wrong way round. It went something like this: I bought 10 shares on Monday I sold 9 shares on Monday I sold 1 share on Wednesday. In this example, do I match the 10 shares bought with the 10 sold under the 30-day rule, or do I match only 9, and calculate the gain on the 1 share with reference to the original purchase price? Thanks!
The website includes translation routines so that you can run your data on both calculators. I think that you can be reasonably confident if they both give the same result - within a few £s due to rounding errors.
1MB, You'll also need to consider position for prior tax years as if your disposals have amounted to 4x annual CGT allowance you should have filed a CGT return for those years (regardless of being under the annual gains allowance). Based on current allowance of £11.3k if disposals amount to >£45.2k for 2017/18 you are required to file a CGT return. At 100 trades per year that's an average of just £452 per trade to hit the reporting threshold (or £904 per disposal if the '100 count' includes both acquisitions and disposals).
Hello all I need to book a CGT loss for 2016/17 and have been advised as i havent completed a self assesment previously that i need to write to HMRC advising the calculation resulting in the loss. I made round 100 trades that year resulting in the loss does anyone know if i just summarise this or have to detail every trade? Thanks in advance
thanks guys. I'm going to assume my previous losses are booked in the system and see what happens!
jim, I have always done the same on line and have never heard from them. It is lodged I beleived as I subsequently get my tax repayment so they know about it. I also attach a pdf scheduling out my gains and losses.I have had losses carried forward and utilised and kept all contract notes should they ever want to visit me.
I have always sent paper forms. The CGT summary is SA108. I suggest that you get a copy of the notes, then Box 45 - Losses brought forward and used in-year and 47 - Losses available to be carried forward I am not qualified to give advice, but these appear to be the place to show your loss brought forward from the previous year. Good luck
I'm filling out my return for 16-17. I had a big capital loss in 15-16 and I want to offset some of it against capital gains in 16-17. When I filled out my application online for 15-16 my capital loss was recorded at some stage during the process. Is that enough for my loss to be banked? Is it now in the system? Or do I have to fill out a specific form to book my capital loss for 15-16? Thanks in advance.
hTTps:// See this bit - "Stamp Duty Land Tax Stamp duty land tax is not charged on the value of inter-spouse/civil partner gifts as long as the property is not mortgaged." If you gift a mortgaged property, SDLT will be payable on the value of any outstanding mortgage to the extent it exceeds the SDLT threshold. hTTps://
The rule that there is no CGT on transfers between spouses (or civil partners) is specific to CGT, and it's not actually a rule that such transfers are exempt from CGT. Instead, it's a rule that such transfers will be deemed to have happened at the value that gives the transferor neither a gain nor a loss - i.e. at precisely the sum of all the transferor's allowable costs. That of course has the same effect as an exemption from CGT would have as far as the question of how much CGT is payable on that transaction is concerned - zero in either case. But it leaves no loose ends to be tidied up by further rules, whereas an exemption from CGT would - it would leave one spouse with an asset whose acquisition isn't 'visible' to CGT. As a result, it would need a rule about what the transferee's allowable costs are (for any transfer) and one about what the transferee's acquisition date was (for the rules about matching disposals of shares to acquisitions) - maybe others I haven't thought of. With the actual rule, the answers to those two questions are easy: the transferee's allowable costs are the value at which the transfer is deemed to have happened, their acquisition date is the date of the transfer. The relevance of all that to your question is that while a rule that transfers between spouses were exempt from CGT would have an obvious extension to other taxes, and so might reasonably be thought to be a special case of a more general rule about taxes in general, the actual rule works in terms of a CGT-specific concept, namely the allowable costs of an asset. As a result, it has no obvious extension to other taxes. And as far as I am aware, there is generally no such extension to other taxes. In particular, I don't know of any rule saying that transactions between spouses are exempt from stamp duty, nor do I have any reason to believe it's likely that there is such a rule. Having said that, I know very little about stamp duty. So don't take what I've said above as saying there is no such rule - there might be. It's just saying that your argument by analogy with CGT doesn't work - i.e. the "logically" in your last sentence is no such thing... Sorry! Gengulphus
I apologize that my question is Stamp duty and not Capital Gains but it is similar. A friend of mine and his wife let a house that they lived in for several years before buying their current home.They have a fixed term buy to let mortgage on their original home but this is coming up for renewal.My friend is a top rate tax payer but his wife doesn't work as they have 3 young children.I suggested to him that he should increase the mortgage on their current home and payoff the buy to let mortgage. If he then transferred the rented house into his wifes name all of the rental income could be set off against her personnel tax allowance.His mortgage adviser however has told him that she would have to pay stamp duty on half of the value of the house. I have always been under the understanding that transfers between husband and wife were not subject to taxes. Does anyone have experience of such a situation and what the correct tax/duty situation is? If the mortgage adviser is correct then logically my friend would have to pay capital gains on the value of the house at the time of transfer to his wife?
And ditto.
A belated thank you Geng' for the answer to my query.
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