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Share Name Share Symbol Market Type Share ISIN Share Description
Capital Gearing Trust Plc LSE:CGT London Ordinary Share GB0001738615 ORD 25P
  Price Change % Change Share Price Bid Price Offer Price High Price Low Price Open Price Shares Traded Last Trade
  -40.00 -0.88% 4,500.00 4,490.00 4,500.00 4,510.00 4,490.00 4,510.00 18,961 16:29:50
Industry Sector Turnover (m) Profit (m) EPS - Basic PE Ratio Market Cap (m)
Equity Investment Instruments 7.8 6.4 59.1 76.1 548

Capital Gearing Share Discussion Threads

Showing 7826 to 7849 of 8325 messages
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DateSubjectAuthorDiscuss
13/8/2014
16:45
I am always on the look out for special dividends, only if I like the company of course, so I am building up losses if I need them. Of course it is only of use if you are well within your income allowances before you pay extra tax on your dividend. An example is AVS which paid a special dividend of 110p per share last tax year. I still hold and if I need the loss I will bed and ISA it.
royaloak
13/8/2014
15:01
Royaloak - I haven't used my capital allowance for this year yet, but I'm trying to preserve it if I can for some other shares I'm planning on selling later this year. David77 - good point about only 1 transaction charge. My broker (Selftrade) doesn't charge for an husband to wife transfer. Thanks for your input guys.
largeronald
13/8/2014
14:44
Yes, I agree. But it seems to me that there is only an advantage if the gain is large enough to be taxable. Some brokers (Charles Stanley Direct and others) will sell in your dealing account and immediately buy back into your ISA, effectively lending you the cash to buy the ISA shares until the sell clears. If you want all of the shares in your wife's ISA then what you are proposing should be ok - in my opinion. I suspect it depends on numbers. I don't think that I paid to transfer shares between mine and my wife's a/cs. If that applies to your broker, then there may be less commission to pay by doing just one sell-and-ISA deal. I am not qualified to give advice - maybe someone else will chip in later.
david77
13/8/2014
14:42
Have you used your capital gains allowance yet? If not sell shares up to that value, and then transfer the others to your wife.
royaloak
13/8/2014
14:24
As I understand it, as soon as the shares are sold (in the current dealing account) they become liable for CGT. Whether or not they are then bought back within an ISA is largely irrelevant. The question I have is whether by transferring the ones I have (which would currently show a profit) to my wife before selling, that profit would, in effect, be wiped out by my wife's ones, which would currently show a loss.
largeronald
13/8/2014
13:52
I am not qualified to give advice but - would the gain be subject to tax? If not then not worth moving them in my opinion. - where do you want the shares to go? into both ISAs with current quantities? A broker will let you sell outside of the ISA and then buy back in the ISA - but both accounts must be for the same person.
david77
13/8/2014
11:02
If anyone could help... Both my wife and I have shares in the same company that we bought at different times in standard dealing accounts that we would like to bed and ISA. I understand that the usual CGT rules apply to the shares on the date they're sold in the dealing accounts prior to them being ISA'd. However - my wife's shares are currently in a cgt loss situation, whereas mine are in a gain situation. Would it be best to transfer (gift) my shares to my wife before selling them - the overall average would result in a cgt loss situation?
largeronald
09/7/2014
09:20
How many trades do you have over the past year? My contract notes are about an inch thick - but I always add a deal to my data file before putting the contract note away. If you don't have that many deals, then it wouldn't take long to create a data list - mycg1314.txt for example. The data format for the stonebanks calculator is as simple as it could be (I think, but then I wrote it). You don't have to enter the data in date order, the prog will sort them. Good luck.
david77
09/7/2014
08:41
Anyone out there who uses the CGT calculater who trades with TD Waaterhouse? TIA Jimmymcs
jimmymcs1
07/7/2014
22:21
Gengulphus, thanks very much that, afraid its abit above my capabilites, but my son is more computer literate than me , will get him to have ago when he next comes up from london, thanks again Jimmymcs
jimmymcs1
07/7/2014
11:18
Sorry, I'm not familiar with TDW's download format, so cannot give any detailed instructions. But in general, the method I would use to change the format of data in a spreadsheet would be to put the original data on one worksheet and construct the transformed data using suitable formulae on another. For example, suppose the original data is from a Dutch broker and you've put it on Sheet1, with the first column indicating in Dutch whether it is a purchase ("Aankoop") or a sale ("Verkoop"), and you want to transform it into a format which wants "B" or "S" as the second item. Then in cell B1 of Sheet2, you enter the formula: =IF(Sheet1!A1="Aankoop","B",IF(Sheet1!A1="Verkoop","S","?")) Similarly put suitable formulae for the first, third, fourth, etc, items in the required format in cells A1, C1, D1, etc, of Sheet2, until you've got everything needed in the format you're aiming for. (This does of course assume that everything needed in that format can be worked out from the original format's data - if it cannot, I'm afraid you'll have to find somewhere it can be worked out from, such as contract notes, and get it into the spreadsheet from there.) Then copy-and-paste row 1 of Sheet2 on to enough further rows to translate all the remaining original data similarly, and you've got the data in your required format on Sheet2. Tips about the above: * Be defensive about possible errors. One instance of that is in the above example formula: I've made it produce a question mark if the original data contains anything other than "Aankoop" or "Verkoop", which means I can do a simple search of Sheet2 for question marks to see whether there were any transaction types my translation didn't understand. For the same reason, if the original data contained "Buy" and "Sell", I would still use a formula like =IF(Sheet1!A1="Buy","B",IF(Sheet1!A1="Sell","S","?")) rather than the shorter =LEFT(Sheet1!A1,1), as the latter could do things like treating a "Brought forward" entry as a buy, or producing an unexpected "T" for a "Transfer" entry you hadn't realised was there (which if you're lucky will provoke an error from the calculator you feed the transformed data into - and if you're unlucky happens to be the way to use a feature of the calculator you didn't know about, resulting in apparently-correct-but-not-what-is-wanted results from the calculator...). * It's also a good idea to put some summary information calculations on both the original sheet of data and the transformed sheet - things like total spent on all buys, total raised by all sales, etc - and check the two sheets agree. * If you find an error in the way the data is transformed, work out what the appropriate cell's formula should be to correct the error, apply the correction to row 1 of Sheet2, and recopy that row to all the remaining rows of Sheet2. Don't apply it to some rows of Sheet2 and not others - not even if the error only affects a rare case that only happens on one row of the data. The reason is that spreadsheets containing tables with inconsistent formulae in them rapidly become incomprehensible... * If you want to further modify the transformed data, e.g. by sorting it or adding comment lines to it, make a copy of it using the "values and formatting only" option and then modify that. That does mean the further modifications have to be redone if anything about the original data or the way it is transformed changes, but that's easy compared with tracking down subtle problems caused e.g. by references in formulae no longer referring to the numbers they were originally supposed to (spreadsheets are quite good at keeping references correct, but not perfect). Gengulphus
gengulphus
07/7/2014
09:07
I trade with T D Waterhouse , Ihave downloaded the history for last tax year and transfered it to aspread sheet. but the format is different from examples in the CGT calculater , anybody using TD Waterhouse who can help ? TIA Jimmymcs
jimmymcs1
18/6/2014
05:32
Thanks just as I suspected.
red nutter
17/6/2014
16:59
1) Bought shares at 1p 2) Sold at 2p and reinvested by a bed and ISA 3) now all holdings in the ISA When I sell I assume I pay CGT on the 1p gain? ... If you mean "When I sell as the first part of step 2, ...", then basically yes - "basically" because the CGT payment is not required right then, but between about 10 and 22 months later depending when you sold in the tax year. If you mean "When I eventually sell the shares in the ISA, after step 3, ...", then no. ... or is there special rules for a bed and ISA? No special rules other than the main special rule for ISAs: everything you do inside an ISA is invisible to CGT. I.e. as far as CGT is concerned, all that happened was: 1) Bought shares at 1p 2a) Sold at 2p... 2b) ... transferred proceeds into ISA ... 2c) ... nothing else visible Steps 1 and 2a match up with each other as an acquisition and disposal; step 2b is visible to CGT but is a sterling cash transfer, which never generates a capital gain or loss. Gengulphus
gengulphus
17/6/2014
13:28
Hopefully someone can help. Just need verification on something:- 1) Bought shares at 1p 2) Sold at 2p and reinvested by a bed and ISA 3) now all holdings in the ISA When I sell I assume I pay CGT on the 1p gain? or is there special rules for a bed and ISA? thanks red
red nutter
11/6/2014
10:40
Thanks Gen... I have contacted Standard life and they were very helpful gave me the original number of shares in 2006 with price allocated to them and subsequent number of additional shares I have been given as a result of dividend investment from 2006 to 2013 and what the allocated price were each time. Based on this information I have calculated average price of my standard life share. I have manually entered my standard life share as Buy on the day of transfer with average price I have calculated for them with zero commission and no stamp duty paid. Subsequently in October I sold these shares through TDW. CGT calculator runs ok and produces a capital gain for these share. I hope this is ok now.
karateboy
10/6/2014
21:06
Topvest - you are busy tonight!
sleepy
10/6/2014
21:02
Annual report arrived today. A very good write-up after a difficult year. First negative return in 30 years and Mr Spiller is taking it to heart as if someone had died..."It is with great sadness...." This is definitely a safe place for your money, but it's not cheap. I'm surprised (as Lowland a couple of years back) that they have forfeited their 28 year dividend increase record and just held the dividend this year. They had a large revenue reserve so could have nudged it up and maintained their record. Bit short term in my view, particularly given the very low yield anyway.
topvest
09/6/2014
08:38
EDITED: Cost nil for those issued free to policyholders, date issued is the date of acquisition. A google search will find the date of Std Life's float and price paid for more. "Standard Life Flotation - Bestinvest www.bestinvest.co.uk/article/4790/Standard-Life-Flotation 10 Jul 2006 - Standard Life was admitted to the London Stock Exchange at 8am Monday 10 July. The share offer price was 230p and the Preferential offer ..."
david77
08/6/2014
22:04
I have standard life share from privatisation . I had it transferred into my TDW account. Last year I sold it. CGT calculator failing due to me selling a share that I have no record of buying it. It was transferred into my TDW account...any body has similar experience ? Thanks in advance.
karateboy
20/5/2014
08:02
BlueHorseshoelovesanacott, No, sorry, I don't have any CGT calculators - the ones linked to in the header are done by other people. I personally use a 'homebrew' spreadsheet for my CGT computations (and no, I'm not going to make it publicly available - it would take far too much work to get it and instructions for it into a state where I was reasonably confident others could use it correctly...). Gengulphus
gengulphus
19/5/2014
11:59
Gengulphus, Do you have a CGT calculator for CFD profit/loss/summary similar to the most useful shares one? Would be very useful and make filing much easier. Superb thread KR
bluehorseshoelovesanacott
19/5/2014
11:00
Thanks for your very lengthy and and clear explanation Gengulphus - your effort is appreciated. FG
farmer george
19/5/2014
08:48
A few corrections on minor-but-not-insignificant points: FG, losses first have to be established with HMRC by reporting them in CGT section of tax return. ... Or by writing a separate letter to the taxman about them - i.e. you don't have to wait for the next tax return to come around to do it, and it can for instance be a good idea to claim the losses early, with a request for a "post-transaction valuation check", so that you know where you stand by the time you have to complete the tax return in which you're going to use the losses. ... In the case of de-listed / failed companies a Neglible Value claim has to be made to HMRC as described several times upthread, including my post today. ... That should be "In the case of failed companies that are still actually in existence ..." - i.e. that have not yet had their affairs completely finalised and been formally dissolved by their liquidators or administrators. You can check whether a company has been formally dissolved (and if so, on what date) on the Companies House website. If the company has been dissolved, you have actually realised the loss on the date the company was dissolved. Provided you're still within the usual "up to the end of the 4th tax year after the tax year in which the was was realised" time limit for claiming a loss, you can claim the loss completely normally, just as though you'd sold the shares for nothing on that date and without any Negligible Value claim. And indeed you can no longer make a successful Negligible Value claim about them, as one of the conditions of making a Negligible Value claim is that you still own the asset concerned: when the company is dissolved, its shares cease to exist and so you cease to own them. If the company has not yet been dissolved, but it clearly has no remaining value, you can make a Negligible Value claim about it, which if successful will mean that you can be treated as though you had sold the shares for nothing on a day named in your claim. There's no time limit on making a Negligible Value claim other than that it ceases to be possible when the company is finally dissolved, but there are restrictions on the date you can name: it must be after the date that the shares became of negligible value, it must be in the tax year in which you actually make the claim or one of the two preceding tax years, and it must also be a date on which the shares were still in existence. Note by the way that my correction only says "failed", not "de-listed / failed". The reason for that is that a Negligible Value claim only works on shares (or other assets) that have no value or very nearly no value. A company failing will cause that to be true of its shares, but a company de-listing without failing will not. For example, I own some shares in a company called Norman Hay that de-listed from AIM some years back. It's still a thriving business, paying me dividends regularly, and it's still possible for a buyer and a seller to get together and agree a price at which to trade the shares - currently the going rate is about twice the price they were on when they actually delisted and a bit above the price just before the de-listing was announced. I.e. they still have value - they're just no longer listed on any stock exchange - and it's the first of those two facts that matters for Negligible Value claims: whether they're listed or not is irrelevant. Gengulphus
gengulphus
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